Board Certification in Emergency Medicine Exam Prep
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Free Emergency Medicine Practice Questions

10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.

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The Emergency Medicine exam has 325 questions and runs 6 hours 30 minutes.

These 10 free Emergency Medicine questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Board Certification in Emergency Medicine blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.

Domain 2: Cardiovascular Disorders 11% of exam

Question 1

A 34-year-old man develops abrupt palpitations while at work. He is alert, has a blood pressure of 126/78 mm Hg, and has no chest pain or signs of heart failure. His ECG shows an irregular tachycardia at 210-260/min with QRS complexes that vary in width and morphology. An earlier ECG in sinus rhythm shows a short PR interval and a slurred QRS upstroke. Defibrillation pads are applied. Which intravenous drug is appropriate for this rhythm?

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Correct answer: C - Procainamide

Question 2

Serial high-sensitivity troponin I values in a 68-year-old man treated for pneumonia and sepsis are 24, 118, and 286 ng/L over 6 hours; the assay's male 99th-percentile upper reference limit is 34 ng/L. His initial hypotension and hypoxemia have resolved. He reports no chest discomfort, serial ECGs show no ischemic changes, and echocardiography shows no regional wall-motion abnormality. Which classification is supported by the information available now?

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Correct answer: A - Acute myocardial injury

Domain 5: Endocrine, Metabolic, & Nutritional Disorders 2% of exam

Question 3

Nausea and poor oral intake bring a 56-year-old woman taking empagliflozin for type 2 diabetes to the emergency department. She has deep, rapid respirations. Glucose is 186 mg/dL, beta-hydroxybutyrate 5.6 mmol/L, bicarbonate 11 mmol/L, venous pH 7.21, and potassium 4.2 mmol/L. After an initial isotonic fluid bolus, her perfusion is adequate. Which treatment addresses the metabolic disturbance despite the glucose concentration?

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Correct answer: C - An IV insulin infusion with dextrose-containing fluids

Domain 6: Gastrointestinal and Abdominal Disorders 7% of exam

Question 4

An 81-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and chronic kidney disease presents with sudden, severe periumbilical pain and vomiting. She is not anticoagulated. Blood pressure is 142/76 mm Hg and pulse is 104/min. Despite reporting 9/10 pain, she has only mild diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding. Lactate is 1.6 mmol/L and creatinine is 1.8 mg/dL, unchanged from baseline. Which investigation should take priority?

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Correct answer: D - CT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis

Domain 10: Neurologic Disorders 6% of exam

Question 5

For 18 hours, a 61-year-old with hypertension has had continuous vertigo, vomiting, and difficulty walking. Symptoms are present at rest, and spontaneous nystagmus is visible. A clinician trained in HINTS testing finds unidirectional horizontal nystagmus, no corrective saccade during horizontal head impulses, and no vertical refixation on alternate cover testing. A noncontrast head CT is normal. Which finding is the decisive reason to continue evaluating for a posterior-circulation stroke?

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Correct answer: D - A normal horizontal head-impulse response

Domain 11: Obstetrics and Gynecology 5% of exam

Question 6

The ultrasound report for a 29-year-old with light vaginal spotting reads "pregnancy of unknown location." Her last menstrual period was approximately 5 weeks ago, and the pregnancy is desired. She has no abdominal pain, syncope, or peritoneal findings. Blood pressure is 118/70 mm Hg, hemoglobin is 12.8 g/dL, and beta-hCG is 1,620 mIU/mL. Transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac, adnexal mass, or significant free fluid. She has reliable follow-up and has received ectopic-pregnancy return precautions. What should happen next?

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Correct answer: B - Repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours and arrange follow-up transvaginal ultrasound

Domain 13: Orthopedic Disorders 7% of exam

Question 7

Arthrocentesis of a hot, swollen native knee yields cloudy fluid with 108,000 leukocytes/microliter, 94% neutrophils, and needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. Gram stain shows no organisms. The 63-year-old patient has diabetes, a history of gout, a temperature of 39.0°C, and severe pain with passive movement. Blood and synovial fluid cultures have been sent. How should the crystal and Gram-stain results influence immediate care?

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Correct answer: A - Begin empiric IV antibiotics and arrange urgent joint-drainage assessment

Domain 14: Pediatric Disorders 6% of exam

Question 8

After a 3-minute generalized seizure during a febrile illness, a 22-month-old returns to her usual behavior within 20 minutes. This is her first seizure, and it has not recurred. She is fully immunized, has normal development, and has received no antibiotics. In the emergency department she is interactive and well hydrated, with rhinorrhea but no meningismus or focal neurologic findings. The source of fever is being assessed. What additional testing does the seizure itself warrant?

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Correct answer: A - No additional neurodiagnostic studies

Domain 17: Pulmonary & Respiratory Disorders 6% of exam

Question 9

A 74-year-old man is evaluated for pleuritic chest discomfort. Pulse is 84/min, oxygen saturation is 97% on room air, and there are no signs of deep venous thrombosis. He has no prior venous thromboembolism, active cancer, recent surgery, or immobilization. Clinical assessment places him in the low-pretest-probability group for pulmonary embolism. A high-sensitivity D-dimer is 620 ng/mL FEU; the laboratory flags results above 500 ng/mL FEU. Under an age-adjusted D-dimer strategy, how should this result affect imaging?

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Correct answer: B - Do not obtain pulmonary vascular imaging because the result is below 740 ng/mL FEU

Domain 20: Traumatic Disorders 11% of exam

Question 10

A 76-year-old taking apixaban trips over a curb and strikes his head. There was no syncope, and he has no other injury. His neurologic examination is at baseline, Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15, and the initial head CT shows no hemorrhage. Four hours later, he remains asymptomatic with an unchanged examination. His wife can observe him at home and understands return precautions. No other reason for hospitalization is identified. Which disposition best fits these findings?

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Correct answer: C - Discharge with his wife and explicit instructions about symptoms of delayed hemorrhage

The rest of the Emergency Medicine blueprint

The Emergency Medicine exam also covers these domains. Drill them in the full free practice test:

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